Israel’s military has claimed it has encircled Gaza City and divided the besieged coastal strip into two, as Gaza came under its third total communications outage since the start of the war.

“Today, there is north Gaza and south Gaza,” Israeli army spokesman Daniel Hagari told reporters on Sunday, calling it a “significant stage” in Israel’s war against Hamas.

Israeli media reported that troops are expected to enter Gaza City within 48 hours. Strong explosions were seen in northern Gaza after nightfall.

But the “collapse in connectivity” across Gaza reported by internet access advocacy group NetBlocks.org and confirmed by the Palestinian telecom company Paltel made it even more complicated to convey details of the new stage of the military offensive.

  • Andy@slrpnk.net
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    1 year ago

    I agree with this 100%. I think it needs to get said more, and more: Palestinians deserve full civil rights including the freedom of movement throughout a single state covering all of historic Palestine.

      • Andy@slrpnk.net
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        1 year ago

        This wasn’t meant to be a political statement. Historic Palestine is a term for what is technically known as Mandate Palestine (or according to Wikipedia, Mandatory Palestine). This was the region defined as Palestine by the League of Nations between 1920 and is a convenient way to refer to all the area that is contested by Israel and Palestinians.

        I’m sorry if it was unclear. I meant that Israel should incorporate the occupied territories formally and legally, and afford the residents full citizenship in the combined state so that both Israelis and Palestinians can live an work anywhere in the combined region. That’s what the "One-State Solution"means.

        https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mandatory_Palestine

        https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/One-state_solution

      • TheDankHold@kbin.social
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        1 year ago

        The region was called philistia since the 10th century bc. Why are we so focused on the modern nation state, a concept that didn’t really exist until the last couple hundred years?

        That land has always been referred to by their population. Philistia, land of the philistines. Then the name morphed into Palestine. It’s always been Palestine.

        • Andy@slrpnk.net
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          1 year ago

          I just want to point to my response to @[email protected] . This wasn’t meant to be a political statement, I was just using a formal term to refer to the entire region that includes Israel and the occupied territories.

          • TheDankHold@kbin.social
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            1 year ago

            I just explained to you how it was known as that for centuries. Both the philistines and canaanites (of which the Jewish kingdoms grew from) lived in the area as part of the population.

            They lived there at the same time, Jews weren’t first. You’re arrogant and wrong, the worst combo.

            And you’re still hung up on nation states, the fact that ottomans conquered and ruled the Palestinians/Philistines doesn’t mean those people haven’t lived there constantly for centuries. The idea of a nation state didn’t exist until the 18th century. It has no bearing on whether a population should have self determination.

            You also forget that in WW1 the British promised the Palestinians the entire territory for their assistance. So if frame it as Palestinians opposed the Brit’s changing the deal to move a bunch of Europeans into the territory they were promised. The west threw their resources secured through global empire to force this colony on the locals. Framing it as not resisting western colonization is deceptive and obfuscates the motives leadership expressed.

              • TheDankHold@kbin.social
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                1 year ago

                So they came in you say? So it sounds like by your logic it doesn’t belong to them either, huh? Maybe we should track down the descendants of ancient Canaanites and give them the territory. After all the Israelites were pastoralists east of the levant before they moved into conquer the territory.

                More manipulative framing. The Brit’s told Palestinians they could have their land. Then told European Jews they’d give them Palestinians land. A colonial empire took land from Palestinians to give to Europeans. And by “took from” I mean they removed people from their ancestral homes to move in colonists.

                Palestinians were told to give up their homes to European immigrants and those immigrants were told they could only colonize half of Palestinian territory. That’s a compromise the same way taking one eye instead of letting you keep both is. I don’t care if you promised someone else both of my eyes, they aren’t your eyes to give away.

                  • TheDankHold@kbin.social
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                    1 year ago

                    They “had to go somewhere” is only true if you decide Europe can’t fix its own antisemitism.

                    Regardless, they didn’t have to displace people from their homes. The US, especially in the 40s, has tons of space for new communities to form.

                    There was no need to kick locals out of their homes so you can ship in foreigners.

                    Also don’t separate Arab and Jew. There are Arab Jews and they lived alongside Palestinians for centuries. The land was lived in by Arabs and Europeans came in and kicked most of them out of half of their homelands.

                    Britain promised the Arabs (which had members of all three main abrahamic sects) that they could rule the land they lived in. Then after the war they promised some Europeans that they could have all of that territory. The analogy fits just fine.