I’m talking like one person brought in all the money for a decade, then a divorce happens. Some of it makes sense - a house with mortgage, one spouse buys the other out of the house. Which is great, but if one spouse doesn’t have the income to take a loan out to buy the other, does that mean that the spouse who does have the income has the choice to buy out or sell?

Similarly, things like 401ks and pensions I imagine you can’t just take out half the cash in them and give that to their spouse. Or does that have to be a loan for the amounts in those plans?

Is it debt all the way down for both?

  • Ejh3k@lemmy.worldEnglish
    3·
    1 year ago

    In terms of the house, if they aren’t able to come to any sort of agreement through consessions, and the one with the income doesn’t want the house, guess what? The house gets sold.